Analysis

Part 1: Aptitude Test
The Xavier Aptitude Test (XAT) was held on January 03, 2016. The exam paper was quite difficulty. Even after being promised that the difficulty level of questions would be reduced, barring QA, other sections failed to fulfill the promise. Most of the questions were tricky and the options were very close.
In short, XAT remains the toughest MBA entrance exam and this year again it beats CAT by a fair margin.
The time consuming questions were equally divided in each section, Verbal Ability section was the toughest section closely followed by the Decision Making section which had very close options. The QA was relatively easy but DI sets were lengthy and time consuming. This must be sigh of relief for most of the candidates.
The question paper had 78 questions in total and the time allotted was increased by 20 minutes i.e. a total of 170 minutes were given. The time limit turned out to be in the favour of candidates, as they were able to attempt questions sticking to the limitations. Students had a choice of not attempting 13 questions. Beyond this, any un-attempted question carried negative mark of 0.05. There was also the negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer.

Section A: Verbal and Logical Ability:
Verbal ability was the first section of the Test XAT-2016. It had 26 questions ranging from a higher moderate level to a difficult level. There were 14 questions in Reading Comprehension that were divided into four passages. The questions were of varied topics having application and inference based questions. The catch was the tricky options. The options were quite close and confusing.
Questions based on vocabulary were 3 including a pronunciation one.
The two para jumbles given were closed one and were relatively easy.
There was only one question on para completion and 3 on critical Reasoning, statements, assumptions etc. But these were on a notch higher in difficulty than the rest of the questions.
An attempt of 18 – 20 questions with 90% accuracy would fetch a good score.

Section B: Decision Making
Decision making was a lengthy one with 4 questions based on analytical Reasoning. These were time consuming ones. The rest of the questions of Decision Making were tricky and with confusing options.
An attempt of 14 – 16 questions with 90% accuracy would fetch a good score.

Section C: Quantitative Ability and Data Interpretation
The QA and DI was the third section in the XAT 2016. There were total 29 questions in the section out of which 22 questions were from QA and 7 questions forming the DI part The QA part was on the easy – to – moderate level, containing questions from varied topics the cases on DI were of moderate difficulty level and the questions involved intensive calculations and were pretty time consuming.

An attempt of around 20 – 22 with a 90% accuracy would fetch a very good score in this section.

Part 2: General Knowledge and Essay

The General Knowledge section had 12 static and 13 Current Affairs related questions. The focus was on geography, international issues and personalities. A well read person should have answered 17 -20 questions correctly. The question pattern followed was direct for most of the questions.

The questions were comparatively easier than last year. Entire year’s current affair was covered in the questions.

The topic for essay writing was “technology and nature are natural enemies”. Topic for essay was easy and most of the XAT aspirants would not have fallen short of thoughts.

VA
Question 1
Question:

Which of the following options best captures the relationship similar to INSPECT: VIVISECT?
A. Enquire: Observe
B. Inquire: Explore
C. Investigate: Interrogate
D. Query: Survey
E. Question: Respond


Solution:

(d) vivisect means cut a body while it is live, in other words scientific research as well.since one can inspect using vivisection similarly a query can be solved by conducting survey (a scientific method), hence (d).

Question 2
Question:

Read the following poem and answer the question that follows:
I sought a soul in the sea And found a coral there Beneath the foam for me An ocean was all laid bare.
Into my heartj_night__ Along a narrow way I groped; andlo! the light, An infinite land of day.
Which of the following would best capture the ESSENCE of the poem above?
A. What lies ‘outside’ is always deceptive.
B. Pursue the narrow path and avoid the broadways.
C. External search is futile; explore the inner space for answers.
D. Heart’s pathways are broad and clear to find the destination.
E. Light offers sight and insight.


Solution:


(c); the lines say that the author could find the soul in the depth of the sea and not on the surface, which is captured well by the option (c). all other options beat about the bush.

Question 3
Question:

“Assumptions are analogous to the basic ingredients in a gourmet recipe. Only the final product of the recipe dictates whether the ingredients suffice………”
Which of the following is ANALOGOUS to the statement above?
A. Good wine needs no advertisement!
B. The apple never falls far from the tree!
C. All is well that ends well!
D. As you sow, so shall you reap!
E. The Proof of the pudding is in the eating!


Solution:


(e); since assumptions are revealed as the sufficient ingredients only after the final product comes out, thus (e) is analogous in which pudding’s proof is obtained only after eating the final product.options (a), (b) , (c) and (d) are eliminated as the final product aint used for deciding the sufficiency of the ingredients.

Question 4
Question:

The FIRST and the LAST sentences of the paragraph are numbered 1 & 6. The others, labelled as P, Q, R and S are given below:
1. Suppose I know someone, Smith.
P. One day you come to me and say: “Smith is in Cambridge.”
Q. 1 inquire, and find you stood at Guildhall and saw at the other end a man and said:
“That was Smith.”
R. I’d say: “Listen. This isn’t sufficient evidence.”
S. I’ve heard that he has been killed in a battle in this war.
6. If we had a fair amount of evidence he was killed I would try to make you say that you’re being credulous.
Which of the following combinations is the MOST LOGICALLY ORDERED?
A. 1SPQR6
B. 1RSPQ6
C. 1PRSQ6
D. 1QSRP6
E. 1RQPS6


Solution:


(a) 1 starts the passage where the author supposes that he he knows of some Smith about whom he had heard as in S. PQ is a strong link when he would inquire about smith on the mention of his name in P.R would precede 6 as in R he talks of insufficient evidence about whose sufficiency he talks in 6.

Question 5
Question:

The FIRST and the LAST sentences of the paragraph are numbered 1 & 6. The others, labelled as P, Q, R and S are given below:
1. The word “symmetry” is used here with a special meaning, and therefore needs to be defined,
P. For instance, if we look at a vase that is left-and-right symmetrical, then turn it 180°
around the vertical axis, it looks the same.
Q. When we have a picture symmetrical, one side is somehow the same as the other
side.
R. When is a thing symmetrical – how can we define it?
S. Professor Hermann Weyl has given this definition of symmetry: a thing is
symmetrical if one can subject it to a certain operation and it appears exactly the
same after operation.
6. We shall adopt the definition of symmetry in Weyl’s more general form, and in that form we shall discuss symmetry of physical laws.
Which of the following combinations is the MOST LOGICALLY ORDERED?
A. 1PQRS6
B. 1QRSP6
C. 1RQPS6
D. 1RQSP6
E. 1SPQR6


Solution:


(b) ; RSP6 is a strong link as in R he asks to define symmetry , the Prof gives the definition next in S, followed by P which gives an example and ends in 6.

Question 6
Question:

In recent past, Indian football team has lost most of the matches in international football tournaments. The most successful coaches in Indian club football tournaments are from Latin American countries. In most of the Latin American countries, football is more popular sport than cricket.
From the passage above, choose the correct option:
A. It can be DEFINITELY concluded that “In India, cricket is more popular than
football”.
B. It can be DEFINITELY concluded that “Most Latin American countries are successful
at football”.
C. It can be DEFINITELY concluded that “In recent past, coaches of Indian football
teams are not from Latin America”.
D. It can be DEFINITELY concluded that “European football coaches are less successful than their Latin American counterparts for Indian national team”.
E. It cannot be DEFINITELY concluded that “The more popular a sport the better the chance of producing a successful coach in that sport”.


Solution:


(c); Since the most successful coaches in Indian Club football are from Latin American countries , and India has lost most macthes recently, thus one can definitely conclude that we havnt had many coaches from latin america in recent past. Thus (c) follows.

Question 7
Question:

Choose the best pronunciation of the word, Sobriquet, from the following options:
A. soh-bruh-key
B. suub-rry-ka
C. sob-bee-ri-kwet
D. soub-rick-kaat
E. Sobb-rik-kwet


Solution:


(a) the pronunciation phonetics are these.

Question 8
Question:

Consider the two related statements below:
Statement I: Offices and positions for the marginalized sections should be open to those
with greater savings among them.
Statement II: Offices and positions must be open to everyone based on the principle of’fair
opportunity,
Which of the following is true?

A. Statement I assumes that the marginalized sections are incapable of saving,
B. Statement II assumes that all citizens are equally exposed to all opportunities. A
C. Statement II contradicts meritocracy.
D. Statement II assumes that all citizens are equally intelligent.
E. Statement I assumes that the marginalized sections always depend on subsidies.


Solution:


(b); the rest of the options can be eliminated on the grounds of a few strong words. Option (a) states ‘incapable of saving’ whereas the sentence says ‘greater savings’ that sows savings can be done. Statement (c) is not a contradiction. Option(d) states that ‘all citizens are equally intelligent’. Nowhere has intelligent been touched on. Option (e) also mentioned ‘ always depend’ hence gets eliminated. The answer is (b).

Question 9
Question:

This season will pass. The Prime Minister may not win Lok Sabha elections, or she may; she may not continue as Prime Minister, or she may. The country will survive whatever the texture of politics in this decade or the next.
Which of the following, IF TRUE, will BEST reinforce the author’s view?

A. The survival of any Prime Minister is dependent on the country’s economic growth.
B. The country has a vibrant young working population.
C. The survival of the country depends on a dynamic, growth-oriented Prime Minister, not on the texture of politics.
D. The previous season had also witnessed similar political uncertainty.
E. The survival of the Prime Minister is dependent on the political texture of the country.


Solution:


(d): Options (a),(b) and (e) are ruled out.Option (d)’ if true means , whatever happens the country will survive. In the previous season too there was political uncertainity. That shows the country has survived the situation. Hence (d).

Question 10
Question:

The subject of this book is knavery, skulduggery, cheating, betrayal, unfairness, crime, sneakiness, malingering, cutting corner, immorality, dishonesty, betrayal, graft, wickedness, and sin.
Which of the following options best captures ALL the italicized words above?
A. Aggressive behaviours
B. Illegal behaviours
C. Deviant behaviours
D. Banned behaviours
E. Vetoed behaviours


Solution:


(c); not all behaviors are aggressive such as dishonest y/immorality. Also not all of them are illegal such as knavery (dishonesty)and skulduggery (verbal misrepresentation to take undue advantage).(c) and (d) are weird. Only option (c),deviant behavior( away from the normal ,or expected/ morality). Thus answer is (c)

Question 11
Question:

Read the following conversation:
O1NOS: I can comprehend you thus far—that certain operations of what we term Nature, or the natural laws, will, under certain conditions, give rise to that which has all the appearance j)f creation. Shortly before the final overthrow of the earth, there were, I well remember, many very successful experiments in what some philosophers were weak enough to denominate the creation of animalculae.
AGATHOS: The cases of which you speak were, in fact, instances of the secondary^ creation—and of the only species of creation which has ever been, since the first word spoke into existence the first law.
Which of the following options CANNOT be DEFINITELY inferred based on the above conversation?

A. Agathos was explaining something related to creation to Oinos.
B. At the time of conversation there was nothing called Earth.
C. The creation of animalculae is a natural law.
D. Natural laws are creations of philosophers,
E. Law is a spoken word.


Solution:

Question 12
Question:

… there is a degree of convergence in the definition of trust which can be summarized as follows: Trust is a particular level of the subjective probability with which an agent assesses that another agent or group of agents will perform a particular action. When we say we trust someone or that someone is trustworthy, we implicitly mean that the probability that he will perform an action that is beneficial to us ….
Which of the following statements BEST COMPLETES the passage above?

A. is high enough for us to find out if he will cheat us.
B. is high enough for us to consider engaging in some form of cooperation with him.
C. is low enough for him not to engage in negative behaviour against us.
D. is high enough for us not to build defences against his possible aggression.
E. is low enough for us to attack him.

Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers for the questions 13-16 that follow:
An effective way of describing what interpersonal communication is or is not, is perhaps to capture the underlying beliefs using specific game analogies.
Communication as Bowling: The bowling model of message delivery is probably the most widely held view of communication. I think that’s unfortunate. This model sees the bowler as the sender, who delivers the ball, which is the message. As it rolls down the lane (the channel), clutter on the boards (noise) may deflect the ball (the message). Yet if it is aimed well, the ball strikes the passive pins (the target audience) v/ith a predictable effect. In this one-way model of communication, the speaker (bowler) must take care to select a precisely crafted message (ball) and practice diligently to deliver it the same way every time. Of course, that makes sense only if target listeners are interchangeable, static pins waiting to be bowled over by our words—which they aren’t.

This has led some observers to propose an interactive model of interpersonal communication.
Communication as Ping-Pong: Unlike bowling, Ping-Pong is not a solo game. This fact alone makes it a better analogy for interpersonal communication. One party puts the conversational ball in play, and the other gets into position to receive. It takes more concentration and skill to receive than to serve because while the speaker (server) knows where the message is going, the listener (receiver) doesn’t. Like a verbal or nonverbal message, the ball may appear straightforward yet have a deceptive spin. Ping-Pong is a back-and- forth game; players switch roles continuously. One moment the person holding the paddle is an initiator; the next second the same player is a rcsponder, gauging the effectiveness of his or her shot by the way the ball comes back. The repeated adjustment essential for good play closely parallels the feedback process described in a number of interpersonal communication theories.

Communication as Dumb Charades The game of charades best captures ihc simultaneous and collaborative nature of interpersonal communication. A charade is neither an action, like bowling a strike, nor an interaction, like a rally in Ping-Pong. It’s a transaction, Charades is a mutual game; the actual play is cooperative. One member draws a title or slogan from a batch of possibilities and then tries to act it out visually for teammates in a silent mini drama. The goal is to get at least one partner to say the exact words that are on the slip of paper. Of course, the actor is prohibited from talking out loud. Suppose you drew the saying “God helps those who help themselves.” For God you might try folding your hands and gazing upward. For helps you could act out offering a helping hand or giving a leg-up boost over a fence. By pointing at a number of real or imaginary people you may elicit a response of them, and by this point a partner may shout out, “God helps those who help themselves.” Success,

Like charades, interpersonal communication is a mutual, on-going process of sending, receiving, and adapting verbal and nonverbal messages with another person to create and alter the images in both of our minds. Communication between us begins when there is some overlap between two images, and is effective to the extent that overlap increases. But even if our mental pictures are congruent, communication .will be partial as long as we interpret them differently. The idea that “God helps those who help themselves” could strike one person as a hollow promise, while the other might regard it as a divine stamp of approval for hard work.

Dumb Charade goes beyond the simplistic analogy of bowling and ping pong. It views interpersonal communications as a complex transaction in which overlapping messages simultaneously affect and are affected by the other person and multiple other factors.


Solution:

Question 13
Question:

The meaning CLOSEST to ‘interchangeable’ in the ‘Communication as Bowling’ paragraph is:

A. Complementary
B. Contiguous
C. Conforming
D. Compatible
E. Comparable


Solution:

Question 14
Question:

Which of the following options is the CLOSEST to the necessary condition of

A. Threshold overlap of shared images
B. Simultaneous exchange
C. Ability to stimulate affect
D. Ability to enact a drama
E. Ability to elicit a response


Solution:

Question 15
Question:

The two inherent LIMITATlONS_of Pin£z£pag-as a metaphor for communication are:

A. It is governed by conventions with possibility for appeal; it has clear rules.
B. The operating model is win-lose because only one individual or team can win; the receiver can always predict the spin.
C. The number of players is limited as very few can be meaningfully engaged at a time; the rules of the game are fixed by the regulators.
D. It demands more skills of the receiver than of the speaker; it is as passive as bowling.
E. Real life communications is like Dumb Chafade with multiple players; there are multiple balls used in Dumb Charade.


Solution:

Question 16
Question:

Action, interaction and transaction is CLOSEST to:

A. Advertising, Buyer negotiating with a seller, Bidding for a player in Indian Premier League.
B. Preparing an election manifesto, Addressing a public gathering, Engaging in door to door canvassing.
C. Preparing for MBA entrance exam, Writing the MBA entrance exam, Facing an interview for business school.
D. Applying for learner licence, Negotiating with a driving school, Driving a Car.
E. Negotiating overseas posting, Applying for visa, Undertaking a journey.

Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers for the questions 17-19 that follow:
Advances in economic theory in the 1970s and 1980s illuminated the limits of markets; they showed that unfettered markets do not lead to economic efficiency whenever information is imperfect or markets are missing (for instance, good insurance markets to cover the key risks confronting mdividuals). And information is always imperfect and markets are always incomplete. Nor do markets, by themselves, necessarily lead to economic efficiency when the task of a country is to absorb new technology, to close the “knowledge gap”: a central feature of development. Today, most academic economists agree that markets, by themselves, do not lead to efficiency; the question is whether government can improve matters.

While it is difficult for economists to perform experiments to test their theories, as a chemist or a physicist might, the world provides a vast array of natural experiments as dozens of countries try different strategies. Unfortunately, because each country differs in its history and circumstances and in the myriad of details in the policies – and details do matter – it is often difficult to get a clear interpretation. What is clear, however, is that there have been marked differences in performance, that the most successful countries have been those in Asia, and that in most of the Asian countries, government played a very active role. As we look more carefully at the effects of particular policies, these conclusions are reinforced: there is a remarkable congruence between what economic theory says government should do and what the East Asian governments actually did. By the same token, the economic theories based on imperfect information and incomplete risk markets that predicted that thejree flow of short-term capital – a key feature of market fundamentalist policies – would produclTnot growth but mstaMTfy have also been borne out.


Solution:

Question 17
Question:

“…whether government can improve matters’1. Here ‘matters’ indicates

A. Economic efficiency
B. Information imperfectness
C. Knowledge gaps
D. Good insurance markets
E. Incomplete risk markets


Solution:

Question 18
Question:

Which of the following options CANNOT be inferred from the above passage?
A. Free flow of short-term capital might fail to ensure economic growth.
B. Insurance market is a proof that ‘markets, by themselves, do not lead to efficiency’.
C. It is difficult to interpret the success of economic policies of Asian countries.
D. Technology can impede market efficiency.
E. State intervention and imperfect information can never go hand-in-hand.


Solution:

Question 19
Question:

Which of the following statements BEST captures the ESSENCE of the two paragraphs in the above passage?

A. Paragraph I and Paragraph II are parallel arguments that are unrelated.
B. Paragraph I describes markets in general whereas Paragraph II describes market failures in Asian economies in particular.
C. Paragraph I explains why markets fail. Paragraph II spells out why market based economic theories fail to explain success of Asian economies.
D. Paragraph 1 raises question and Paragraph II answers it.
E. Paragraph I states an economic theory and Paragraph II cites a natural experiment to disprove it.

Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers for the questions 20-23 that follow:
The base of Objectivism according to Ayan Rand is explicit: “Existence exists—and the act of grasping that statement implies two corollary axioms: that something exists which one perceives and that one exists possessing consciousness, consciousness being the faculty of perceiving that which exists.”
Existence and consciousness are facts implicit in every perception. They are the base of all knowledge (and the precondition of proof): knowledge presupposes something to know and someone to know it. They are absolutes which cannot be questioned or escaped: every human utterance, including the denial of theseaxioms, implies their use and accepfance. The third axiom at the base of knowledge—an axiom true, in Aristotle’s words, of “being qua being”—is^ the Law of Identity. This law defines the essence of existence: to be is to be something, a thing is what it is; and leads to the fundamental principle of all action, the law of causality. The law of causality states that a thing’s actions arc determined not by chance, but by its nature, i.e., by what it is.

It is important to observe the interrelation of these three axioms. Existence is the first axiom. The universe exists independent of consciousness. Man is able to adapt his background to his own requirements, but “Nature, to be commanded, must be obeyed” (Francis Bacon). There is no mental process that can change the laws of nature or erase facts. The function of consciousness is not to create reality, but to apprehend it. “Existence is Identity, Consciousness is Identification.”


Solution:

Question 20
Question:

Which of the following is DEFINITELY CORRECT according to the passage:

A. Only what can be perceived exists.
B. What exists is perceived.
C. All that exists does not have consciousness.
D. Consciousness makes perception of being possible.
E. Something to be known and someone to know are the conditio sine qua non for existence.


Solution:

Question 21
Question:

Which of the following is the ESSENCE of ‘The law of Causality’?

A. To be is to be something; ‘being qua being’.
B. Wishing to become something else denies the nature of that being.
C. The law of identity is the same as the law of causality.
D. Essence of existence.
E. Actions of a being are determined by its nature.


Solution:

Question 22
Question:

Which of the following can be best captured as ‘Identity’ and ‘Identification1?

A. College as identity; perception of cultural events as identification.
B. Twitter as identity; perception of Twitter as identification.
C. Government as identity; perception of taxation of citizens as identification.
D. Marriage as identity; perception of children as identification.
E. MBA as identity; perception of campus placement as identification.


Solution:

Question 23
Question:

The author would interpret Francis Bacon’s “Nature, to be commanded, must be obeyed”
as:

A. Reality should not to be modified or escaped but faced.
B. Man’s existence depends on nature’s whims.
C. Essentially and objectively nature is superior to humans.
D. Obstacles are better circumvented than confronted.
E. Before channelling nature one must first comply with it.


Solution:

Question 24
Question:

Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers for the questions 24-26 that follow:
Each piece, or part, of the whole of nature is always merely an approximation to the complete truth, or the complete truth so far as we know it. In fact, everything we know is only some kind of approximation, because we know that we do not know all the laws as yet. Therefore, things must be learned only to be unlearned again or, more likely, to be corrected.
The principle of science, the definition, almost, is the following: The test of all knowledge is experiment. Experiment is the sole judge of scientific “truth.” But what is the source of knowledge? Where do the laws that are to be tested come from? Experiment, itself, helps to produce these laws, in the sense that it gives us hints. But also needed is imagination to create from these hints the great generalizations—-to guess at the wonderful, simple, but very strange patterns beneath them all, and then to experiment to check again whether we have made the right guess. This imagining process is so difficult that there is a division of labour in physics: there are theoretical physicists who imagine, deduce, and guess at new laws, but do not experiment; and then there are experimental physicists who experiment, imagine, deduce, and guess.
We said that the laws of nature are approximate: that we first find the “wrong” ones, and then we find the “right” ones. Now, how can an experiment be “wrong”? First, in a trivial way: the apparatus can be faulty and you did not notice. But these things are easily fixed and checked back and forth. So without snatching at such minor things, how can the results of an experiment be wrong? Only by being inaccurate. For example, the mass of an object
never seems to change; a spinning top has the same weight as a still one. So a “law” was invented: mass is constant, independent of speed. That “law” is now found to be incorrect. Mass is found to increase with velocity, but appreciable increase requires velocities near that of light. A true law is: if an object moves with a speed of less than one hundred miles a second the mass is constant to within one part in a million. In some such approximate form this is a correct law. So in practice one might think that the new law makes no significant difference. Well, yes and no. For ordinary speeds we can certainly forget it and use the simple constant mass law as a good approximation. But for high speeds we are wrong, and the higher the speed, the more wrong we are.
Finally, and most interesting, philosophically we are completely wrong with the approximate law. Our entire picture of the world has to be altered even though the mass changes only by a little bit. This is a very peculiar thing about the philosophy, or the ideas, behind the laws. Even a very small effect sometimes requires profound changes to our ideas.

Which of the following options is DEFINITELY NOT an approximation to the complete truth?

A. I know that I know.
B. I know that I do not know.
C. I know what I know.
D. I know what I do not know.
E. I know that others do not know.


Solution:

Question 25
Question:

Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers for the questions 24-26 that follow:
Each piece, or part, of the whole of nature is always merely an approximation to the complete truth, or the complete truth so far as we know it. In fact, everything we know is only some kind of approximation, because we know that we do not know all the laws as yet. Therefore, things must be learned only to be unlearned again or, more likely, to be corrected.
The principle of science, the definition, almost, is the following: The test of all knowledge is experiment. Experiment is the sole judge of scientific “truth.” But what is the source of knowledge? Where do the laws that are to be tested come from? Experiment, itself, helps to produce these laws, in the sense that it gives us hints. But also needed is imagination to create from these hints the great generalizations—-to guess at the wonderful, simple, but very strange patterns beneath them all, and then to experiment to check again whether we have made the right guess. This imagining process is so difficult that there is a division of labour in physics: there are theoretical physicists who imagine, deduce, and guess at new laws, but do not experiment; and then there are experimental physicists who experiment, imagine, deduce, and guess.
We said that the laws of nature are approximate: that we first find the “wrong” ones, and then we find the “right” ones. Now, how can an experiment be “wrong”? First, in a trivial way: the apparatus can be faulty and you did not notice. But these things are easily fixed and checked back and forth. So without snatching at such minor things, how can the results of an experiment be wrong? Only by being inaccurate. For example, the mass of an object
never seems to change; a spinning top has the same weight as a still one. So a “law” was invented: mass is constant, independent of speed. That “law” is now found to be incorrect. Mass is found to increase with velocity, but appreciable increase requires velocities near that of light. A true law is: if an object moves with a speed of less than one hundred miles a second the mass is constant to within one part in a million. In some such approximate form this is a correct law. So in practice one might think that the new law makes no significant difference. Well, yes and no. For ordinary speeds we can certainly forget it and use the simple constant mass law as a good approximation. But for high speeds we are wrong, and the higher the speed, the more wrong we are.
Finally, and most interesting, philosophically we are completely wrong with the approximate law. Our entire picture of the world has to be altered even though the mass changes only by a little bit. This is a very peculiar thing about the philosophy, or the ideas, behind the laws. Even a very small effect sometimes requires profound changes to our ideas.

Consider the two statements from the passage:
Statement I: The mass of an object never seems to change.
Statement II: Mass is found to increase with velocity.

Which of the following options CANNOT he concluded from the above passage?

A. Both statements I and II are approximation to the complete truth.
B. Both statements I and II are complete truth so far as we know.
C. Statement I is an approximation to the complete truth but Statement II is complete truth.
D. Statement I reveals that experimental physicists who imagine, deduce, and guess are philosophically wrong.
E. Statement II shows that theoretical physicists can pinpoint the shortcomings of experimental physicists.


Solution:

Question 26
Question:

Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers for the questions 24-26 that follow:
Each piece, or part, of the whole of nature is always merely an approximation to the complete truth, or the complete truth so far as we know it. In fact, everything we know is only some kind of approximation, because we know that we do not know all the laws as yet. Therefore, things must be learned only to be unlearned again or, more likely, to be corrected.
The principle of science, the definition, almost, is the following: The test of all knowledge is experiment. Experiment is the sole judge of scientific “truth.” But what is the source of knowledge? Where do the laws that are to be tested come from? Experiment, itself, helps to produce these laws, in the sense that it gives us hints. But also needed is imagination to create from these hints the great generalizations—-to guess at the wonderful, simple, but very strange patterns beneath them all, and then to experiment to check again whether we have made the right guess. This imagining process is so difficult that there is a division of labour in physics: there are theoretical physicists who imagine, deduce, and guess at new laws, but do not experiment; and then there are experimental physicists who experiment, imagine, deduce, and guess.
We said that the laws of nature are approximate: that we first find the “wrong” ones, and then we find the “right” ones. Now, how can an experiment be “wrong”? First, in a trivial way: the apparatus can be faulty and you did not notice. But these things are easily fixed and checked back and forth. So without snatching at such minor things, how can the results of an experiment be wrong? Only by being inaccurate. For example, the mass of an object
never seems to change; a spinning top has the same weight as a still one. So a “law” was invented: mass is constant, independent of speed. That “law” is now found to be incorrect. Mass is found to increase with velocity, but appreciable increase requires velocities near that of light. A true law is: if an object moves with a speed of less than one hundred miles a second the mass is constant to within one part in a million. In some such approximate form this is a correct law. So in practice one might think that the new law makes no significant difference. Well, yes and no. For ordinary speeds we can certainly forget it and use the simple constant mass law as a good approximation. But for high speeds we are wrong, and the higher the speed, the more wrong we are.
Finally, and most interesting, philosophically we are completely wrong with the approximate law. Our entire picture of the world has to be altered even though the mass changes only by a little bit. This is a very peculiar thing about the philosophy, or the ideas, behind the laws. Even a very small effect sometimes requires profound changes to our ideas.

‘Big Bang’ is a popular theory related to the origin of the universe. It states that the universe was the outcome of a big bang that released enormous energy.
Which of the following is the MOST PROBABLE inference about the big bang theory?

A. Big Bang Theory was first proposed by experimental physicists.
B. Big Bang Theory was first proposed by theoretical physicists.
C. Big Bang Theory was first proposed by experimental physicists and then deduced by theoretical physicists.
D. Philosophers got the Big Bang theory wrong.
E. Big Bang theory is not an approximation of the complete truth.


Solution:


Decision Making
Question 27
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 27-29 that follow:
Indian Institute of Research is a Government-established body to promote research. In addition to helping in policy making, it also provides free online access to all the articles to the public. It has a mission of publishing high quality research articles. Till 2010, the publication of articles was very slow because there was no incentive for researchers to publish. Researchers stuck to the mandatory one article a year. Most of the researchers engaged in offering consultancy and earned extra income. Since its inception, the institute was considered the best place for cutting edge research. The new director of the institute was not happy with the work done by researchers in silo and came out with a new research policy in 2013 to increase research output and improve collaboration among researchers. It was decided that extra benefits would be offered to researchers with new publications. As a result, the number of research articles increased fourfold in 2014. At the 2015 annual audit, an objection was raised against the new benefits scheme. Auditors1 were not happy with increased expenses towards remuneration for researchers. Further, the Government opined that the publication was itself a reward and hence researchers need be paid nothing extra. The director tried to defend his policy but the response from the government was not encouraging. I. Note: Auditors role is to verify accounts.

The following facts were observed by an analytics team hired by the government to study the extant situation.
1. There was a four-fold increase in the number of researchers leaving the organization in 2014.
2. A researcher died while on duty.
3. The quality of articles published declined substantially.
4. The average number of people accessing an article decreased by 2%.
Which of the following options would justify the government’s intention to DISCONTINUE the scheme?

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 only
D. 4 only
E. 3 and 4


Solution:

Question 28
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 27-29 that follow:
Indian Institute of Research is a Government-established body to promote research. In addition to helping in policy making, it also provides free online access to all the articles to the public. It has a mission of publishing high quality research articles. Till 2010, the publication of articles was very slow because there was no incentive for researchers to publish. Researchers stuck to the mandatory one article a year. Most of the researchers engaged in offering consultancy and earned extra income. Since its inception, the institute was considered the best place for cutting edge research. The new director of the institute was not happy with the work done by researchers in silo and came out with a new research policy in 2013 to increase research output and improve collaboration among researchers. It was decided that extra benefits would be offered to researchers with new publications. As a result, the number of research articles increased fourfold in 2014. At the 2015 annual audit, an objection was raised against the new benefits scheme. Auditors1 were not happy with increased expenses towards remuneration for researchers. Further, the Government opined that the publication was itself a reward and hence researchers need be paid nothing extra. The director tried to defend his policy but the response from the government was not encouraging. I. Note: Auditors role is to verify accounts.

The director still wanted to persuade the government to review its stand. He had framed the following arguments:
1. Most famous researchers in the world are also the highest paid.
2. American institute of research gives extra benefits to its scientists.
3. This year’s highest paid researcher had won the Nobel Prize last year.
Considering the Government to be reasonable which of the following options is UNLIKELY to convince the Government?

A. 1 and 2
B. . 2 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3
E. 1,2 and 3


Solution:

Question 29
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 27-29 that follow:
Indian Institute of Research is a Government-established body to promote research. In addition to helping in policy making, it also provides free online access to all the articles to the public. It has a mission of publishing high quality research articles. Till 2010, the publication of articles was very slow because there was no incentive for researchers to publish. Researchers stuck to the mandatory one article a year. Most of the researchers engaged in offering consultancy and earned extra income. Since its inception, the institute was considered the best place for cutting edge research. The new director of the institute was not happy with the work done by researchers in silo and came out with a new research policy in 2013 to increase research output and improve collaboration among researchers. It was decided that extra benefits would be offered to researchers with new publications. As a result, the number of research articles increased fourfold in 2014. At the 2015 annual audit, an objection was raised against the new benefits scheme. Auditors1 were not happy with increased expenses towards remuneration for researchers. Further, the Government opined that the publication was itself a reward and hence researchers need be paid nothing extra. The director tried to defend his policy but the response from the government was not encouraging. I. Note: Auditors role is to verify accounts.

The director wanted to promote good decision making at Indian Institute of Research. A few trusted colleagues offered the following suggestions:
1. Auditors need not be allowed to object to extra benefits schemes.
2. Auditors need not pin-point sudden increase in expenditure.
3. Auditors need not be consulted before taking any policy level decision.
Which of the following combination of options should the director agree THE MOST with?

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3
E. 1,2 and 3


Solution:

Question 30
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 30-31 that follow:
Kama! Chinnappa, Vimal Rao, Ganesh Krishnan and Dinesh Kumar own a saloon each on the Barbil street. They are the only hairdressers on that street. Each of them offered three services viz. haircut, shaving and hair-dye. One evening, all four of them met in a nearby tea-stall and agreed to charge ?100 for any of the three services (haircut, shave and hair-dye) on weekdays. They also agreed to increase this rate to ?115 on weekends and holidays. All verbally decided to implement the agreement.

The following day Kamal, being the most competent hairdresser on the street, was contemplating charging higher than agreed upon price.
Which of the following would enable him to charge more with minimal violation of the agreement?

A. He should introduce a new and specialized service at ^130.
B. He should open another shop on the same street and charge ?150.
C. He should charge ?130 for those wanting to jump the queue.
D. He should charge ?115 for a service to a particular customer and give the next service free.
E. He should open his shop two hours before others and close it two hours after.


Solution:

Question 31
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 30-31 that follow:
Kama! Chinnappa, Vimal Rao, Ganesh Krishnan and Dinesh Kumar own a saloon each on the Barbil street. They are the only hairdressers on that street. Each of them offered three services viz. haircut, shaving and hair-dye. One evening, all four of them met in a nearby tea-stall and agreed to charge ?100 for any of the three services (haircut, shave and hair-dye) on weekdays. They also agreed to increase this rate to ?115 on weekends and holidays. All verbally decided to implement the agreement.

Vimal relics heavily on a bunch of loyal customers. He is concerned about retaining them.
Which of the following options should he choose if he does not want to violate the agreement?

A. He should charge differential rates for loyal customers.
B. He should charge the loyal customers lower.
C. He should make every third visit free for his loyal customers.
D. He should charge all the agreed upon price.
E. He should allow his loyal customers to jump the queue.


Solution:

Question 32
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 32-33 that follow:
The City of Yashmund is served by licensed taxis operating on officially sanctioned metered rates and driven by licensed drivers who do not own the taxis but pay a monthly rent to the taxi-owners. Shaliesh Nair, the mayor of Yashmund, perceived that most of these taxis do not offer sufficient comfort and safety to passengers.

The Mayor wants the owners and drivers to care about comfort.
Which of the following decisions, IF TAKEN, is MOST LIKELY to increase the comfort levels of passengers?

A. The mayor issues a guideline that taxis will be randomly inspected by the police for the comfort level.
B. The mayor ensures banks grant drivers loans to own cars. Owner driven cars generally offer greater comfort.
C. The mayor introduces licensing of air-conditioned taxis which can charge increased rates to the rich customers.
D. The mayor introduces a feedback system that records passenger satisfaction with comfort levels; this will affect renewal of annual taxi license.
E. The mayor permits doubling metered rates which will ensure enhanced income for owners to invest in greater comfort.


Solution:

Question 33
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 32-33 that follow:
The City of Yashmund is served by licensed taxis operating on officially sanctioned metered rates and driven by licensed drivers who do not own the taxis but pay a monthly rent to the taxi-owners. Shaliesh Nair, the mayor of Yashmund, perceived that most of these taxis do not offer sufficient comfort and safety to passengers.

The mayor wants to involve the car owners in finding a solution to the problem of comfort and safety. He is concerned that the customers may not be willing to pay more for safety.
Which of the options below is MOST LIKELY to convince the owners?

A. The taxi owners who clear comfort-inspection can charge higher rentals from the
drivers and drivers with impeccable safety record can charge the same from customers.
B. The taxis that clear comfort-inspection can charge 25% above the metered rates; studies
have shown that customers are willing to pay around 18% extra for comfort.
C. If a taxi owner has a consistent record of comfort and safety the government will
subsidize a second loan.
D. Taxis can charge 25% more if they clear comfort-inspection. However, owners of the
taxis found compromising on safety will be jailed.
E. Taxis that pass comfort-inspection test can charge 25% more. Should they violate any
traffic rule this privilege would be withdrawn.


Solution:

Question 34
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 34-35 that follow:
Chatterjee, the MLA of Trikathapur, owes his election success to his close friend and businessman Ghosh. The victory had appeared unlikely for Chatterjee after the arrival of Bhowmick, a budding politician with hordes of money. However, his clean image along with Ghosh’s money ensured Chatterjee’s resounding victory,

After the elections, Ghosh requested Chatterjee to sanction the land adjoining his factory, for expansion. However, the requested government land was a green belt reducing harmful pollution from the factory.
Which of the following is the BEST option for Chatterjee in these circumstances?

A. Chatterjee should approve the sale only after Ghosh plants a large number of trees
around the factory and the city.
B. Chatterjee should oblige Ghosh provided he’recruits 20 locals as his employees on
condition that they plant and maintain a tree each in their locality.
C. As Ghosh is paying market rates Chatterjee should approve the sale with no riders.
D. Chatterjee should approve the sale and ensure that the green belt is shifted to a different
tract of land outside the city, purchased from the proceeds of the sale.
E. Chatterjee should unconditionally approve the transfer of the land to Ghosh as a token
of gratitude.


Solution:

Question 35
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 34-35 that follow:
Chatterjee, the MLA of Trikathapur, owes his election success to his close friend and businessman Ghosh. The victory had appeared unlikely for Chatterjee after the arrival of Bhowmick, a budding politician with hordes of money. However, his clean image along with Ghosh’s money ensured Chatterjee’s resounding victory,

Inspired by Bhowmick’s manifesto, Chatterjee is contemplating a green policy which can adversely affect Ghosh’s business interests.
Which of the following actions from Ghosh is likely to convince Chatterjee NOT to pursue this policy?

A. Request Chatterjee to defer implementation of the green policy by 3 years, the time needed to make his factory green.
B. Remind Chatterjee that it is for his clean image that people voted him and not for Bhowmick’s green policy.
C. Warn Chatterjee that all industrialists will turn against him and despite his clean image
he may be hated by the industry.
D. Appeal to Chatterjee’s sympathy citing the potential loss his business will suffer if the
policy were to be implemented.
E. Threaten Chatterjee that he should not take his loyalty for granted as Bhowmick has
invited him to join his party.


Solution:

Question 36
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 36-38 that follow:
Nicky, Manoj and Benita are graduates from a top ranked B-school. They joined ABC corporation a year ago. ABC is known for its performance oriented culture. This is the first time the organization recruited from a top ranked B-school. They are part of a five member team with two others from lower ranked B-schools. Nicky, Manoj and Benita draw 40 per cent higher salaries than other team members. This team reports to Amelia Ganeshmurthi, a senior executive.

Amelia is disappointed with the performance of Nicky, Manoj and Benita. She came to know that ABC was not their first choice and they had spent the first ten months applying to other organizations. However, they have now started liking ABC and promised to do their best henceforth. Amelia has to rate their annual performance and decide about their future. She has the following choices:

1. Fire them from ABC for insincerity and save the organization’s time and money.
2. Give them average ratings with a year to prove their worth and fire them from ABC if they fail to show significant progress.
3. Impose a pay-cut of 15% since they have not delivered on the promise, but give them relatively high ratings.
4. Give them relatively poor ratings with one year time to improve and fire them from ABC if they fail to show significant progress.
5. Give them high ratings and give them a second chance to prove their worth.
Which of the following options rank the above choices in the order of MOST APPROPRIATE to LEAST APPROPRIATE?

A. 1,2,4
B. 2, 1,4
C. 4,2,5
D. 4, 3, 1
E. 5,2,3


Solution:

Question 37
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 36-38 that follow:
Nicky, Manoj and Benita are graduates from a top ranked B-school. They joined ABC corporation a year ago. ABC is known for its performance oriented culture. This is the first time the organization recruited from a top ranked B-school. They are part of a five member team with two others from lower ranked B-schools. Nicky, Manoj and Benita draw 40 per cent higher salaries than other team members. This team reports to Amelia Ganeshmurthi, a senior executive.

Recruiting Nicky, Manoj and Benita was part of a larger initiative to make the organization attractive to prospective employees. Recently Amelia’s boss informally told her that the trio’s perception of the organization might influence future recruitment from top B-schools. However, the trio had already expressed their unhappiness about the organization to Amelia. She suspected that her promotion due next year might depend on the trio!
Which of the following is the BEST way for Amelia to deal with this situation?

A. Henceforth, she should be lenient with the trio.
B. She should promise the trio an early promotion if they can help her recruit good talent from top B-schools.
C. Henceforth, she should occasionally invite the trio for dinner and informal outings.
D. She should tell her boss that it is unfair to link her promotion to the trio’s behaviour.
E. She should convey the trio’s unhappiness to her boss.


Solution:

Question 38
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 36-38 that follow:
Nicky, Manoj and Benita are graduates from a top ranked B-school. They joined ABC corporation a year ago. ABC is known for its performance oriented culture. This is the first time the organization recruited from a top ranked B-school. They are part of a five member team with two others from lower ranked B-schools. Nicky, Manoj and Benita draw 40 per cent higher salaries than other team members. This team reports to Amelia Ganeshmurthi, a senior executive.

Nicky’s performance on the job is disappointing though she is considered a very helpful person outside the workplace helping her teammates and others in the organization with their personal needs e.g. finding a place to rent, a good place to get homely food etc. On the other hand, Manoj and Benita are performing well in their respective jobs and are perceived by their teammates as important to the team. But they are not interested in helping outside the workplace. Amelia has to decide the future of the trio. She has the following options:
1. Inform the higher authorities about Nicky’s poor performance and ask them to take a call.
2. Send Nicky for a one month training earmarked for top performing employees.
3. Serve Nicky an ultimatum to improve within the next six months or get fired.
4. Even though they performed well, give Manoj and Benita average ratings because of their disinterest in helping outside workplace.
5. Give Manoj and Benita high ratings based on their performance.
Which of the following combination of above options will be the MOST APPROPRIATE?

A. 1 and 5
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 5
D. 3 and 4
E. 3 and 5


Solution:

Question 39
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 39-41 that follow:
Recently a private food testing agency reported the presence of a harmful chemical in Crunchy Chips, a product of a fast moving consumer goods giant. The report sparked a nationwide outcry.

Rajan Shekhawat, the CEO of the company, feared this incident might affect the company’s image among consumers. Rajan had the following options:
1. Apologizing publicly for this inconvenience and immediately withdrawing the products from all stores.
2. Communicate ‘the correct findings’ to the public.
3. Hire a reputed independent testing agency to verify the claims of the report.
4. Establish internal mechanisms to prevent repetition of such incidences in future.
5. Give higher incentives to distributors and retailers for selling the company brands.
Which of the following would be the MOST APPROPRIATE ORDER of options for Rajan, starting from the immediate?

A. 3, 1,5
B. 3,2,4
C. 1,3,5
D. 1,2,5
E. 5,3,2


Solution:

Question 40
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 39-41 that follow:
Recently a private food testing agency reported the presence of a harmful chemical in Crunchy Chips, a product of a fast moving consumer goods giant. The report sparked a nationwide outcry.

Mukesh Routray, a shopkeeper in a remote village was surprised to read in the newspaper, his only source of information, about harmful chemicals in Crunchy Chips. He had stocked a large quantity of Crunchy Chips for the forthcoming festive season. He also realized that people in his village are completely unaware of this controversy. He had the following options:
1. Sell the entire stock at a discount before the news spreads.
2. Destroy the entire stock and advise customers not to buy this product from other shops as well.
3. Donate the entire stock of Crunchy Chips to a local orphanage.
4. Inform customers about the controversy but understate its seriousness.
5. Ignore the news and sell the stock at the forthcoming festive season as planned.
6. Explore the veracity of the report and then take decision.
If arranged from ethical to unethical which of the following is DEFINITELY the WRONG
order?

A. 6, 5, 1
B. 6, 1,4
C. 4, 5, 1
D. 2,4,3
E. 2,4,1


Solution:

Question 41
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 39-41 that follow:
Recently a private food testing agency reported the presence of a harmful chemical in Crunchy Chips, a product of a fast moving consumer goods giant. The report sparked a nationwide outcry.

An independent and trustworthy confidante of Rajan Shekhawat, the CEO of the company, informed him that one of their main competitors had bribed the food testing agency to manipulate the report.
Which of the following actions will BEST help Crunchy Chips to bounce back?

A. Proclaim over the media that their product is completely safe.
B. Secretly hire a food testing agency to ascertain the quality of the competitor’s product.
C. Hire another food testing agency to test and communicate the outcome to the consumers.
D. File a defamation case against the competitor for their alleged involvement in the conspiracy.
E. Fi4e a defamation case against the food testing agency.


Solution:

Question 42
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 42-44 that follow:

Purushottam Bhatnagar owns and operates a sweetshop Puru and Sons. He is about 60 years old and is eager to hand over the business to his sons Ratan and Pramod. He however, fears that his sons, fresh from college may not understand the tricks of the trade.

Purushottam sends a batch of sweets to the Police station across the street every day. Ratan construed it as a bribe and wanted to stop this practice.
Which of the following arguments, IF TRUF,, would BEST convince Ratan NOT to give up this practice?

A. In the last three years, three attempts to burgle Puru and Sons were effectively foiled by the Police.
B. Each policeman receives only two pieces of sweet, too small to be considered a bribe.
C. The police in return send two policemen in mufti to mingle with the customers during rush hours to prevent pickpockets.
D. Every day, Purushottam also sends a batch of sweets to the school next to the station, an orphanage nearby and the temple at the end of the street.
E. Purushottam’s competitor Uttampurush who runs a sweetshop in the same street and his neighbour Mahapurush who runs a samosa stall, both do similar things every day.


Solution:

Question 43
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 42-44 that follow:

Purushottam Bhatnagar owns and operates a sweetshop Puru and Sons. He is about 60 years old and is eager to hand over the business to his sons Ratan and Pramod. He however, fears that his sons, fresh from college may not understand the tricks of the trade.

Purushottam’s eldest son discovered that the shop repackaged sweets that were close to expiry and sold them at a discount under different names. These sweets usually get sold very fast. But his son was concerned about the possible consequences of this practice.

Purushottam was thinking of the following arguments to convince his son.

1. These sweets are consumed the same day and therefore there is no cause for worry.
2. Reduced prices give enough indication about the sweets to the customers.
3. These products are preferred by those who cannot afford full price and in a way, this is a service done to them.
4. In the past 30 years not a single person has reported ill because of consumption of these sweets.
5. Repackaging and selling sweets is a common practice.
Which combination of arguments below is MOST LIKELY to convince Ratan?

A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 5
E. 4 and 5


Solution:

Question 44
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 42-44 that follow:

Purushottam Bhatnagar owns and operates a sweetshop Puru and Sons. He is about 60 years old and is eager to hand over the business to his sons Ratan and Pramod. He however, fears that his sons, fresh from college may not understand the tricks of the trade.

Purushottam’s younger son Pramod discovered that 10% of their customers whom Purushottam called privileged customers purchased sweets at prices fixed 10 years ago (which is significantly lower than the current prices). Purushottam told him, “This 10% are my core and loyal customers with whom I have personal connect and therefore they deserve this privilege”. Pramod refuted his father’s argument citing the following information.
1. These customers form the top 20% of the income bracket of the city.
2. These customers frequently purchase from other sweetshops at market prices.
3. None of them recognises and greets Purushottam at the shop or at anywhere else.
4. None of them was present at Pramod’s marriage.
5. These customers actually buy sweets at Puru and Sons for others not part of the core and loyal customer group.
Which of the following combination of the above will MOST LIKJELY convince Purushottam to charge market price to all?

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 5
D. 3 and 4
E. 4 and 5


Solution:

Question 45
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 45-47 that follow:
Six people working at the Bengaluru office of Simsys are planning to buy flats at a real estate project at Whitefield. Their preferences are listed below:

Person

Designation

First Preference

Second Preference

Third Preference

Bhatia

Vice President

Ground floor flat

Price <  Rs. 50 lacs.

Shopping mall within 5 km.

Patel

Client Relationship

Manager

Distance to office < 10 km.

Recreation Club

 

Khan

Project Manager

Recreation Club

Place for morning

walk

Car parking

Singh

Senior Software

Engineer

Shopping mall within 15 km.

Price < Rs. 30 lacs.

Place for morning

walk

Yadav

Assistant Software Engineer

Price < Rs. 50 lacs.

Distance to office

< 10km.

 

Ungdo

Assistant Software Engineer

Recreation club

 

 

 

They have identified 7 real estate projects with following facilities available (marked with √):

Real Estate Project

M

N

o

p

Q

R

s

Price

Rs. 60-80 lacs.

Rs. 45-50 lacs.

Rs. 20-25

lacs.

Rs. 65-80

lacs.

Rs. 35-45 lacs.

Rs. 25-40 lacs

Rs. 20-30 lacs.

Distance to office

<5 km.

<10 km.

>20 km.

> 15 km.

<2km.

<10 km.

<5 km.

Place for morning walk

 

Recreation Club

 

 

 

 

Distance to shopping mall

Inside

>25 km.

<2km.

Inside

< 5 km.

>10 km.

>20 km.

Car parking facility

 

 

 

Availability of ground floor flat

 

 

 

 

 

 

A person is ‘satisfied1 if a project meets all three preferences.

Identify the project(s) where NONE of the 6 persons will be ‘satisfied’.
A. M only
B. Nonly
C. Ponly
D. N and Ponly
E. In all projects at least one person will be ‘satisfied’.


Solution:


From the table it is evident that none of the persons will be satisfied in project P Hence option c.

Question 46
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 45-47 that follow:
Six people working at the Bengaluru office of Simsys are planning to buy flats at a real estate project at Whitefield. Their preferences are listed below:

Person

Designation

First Preference

Second Preference

Third Preference

Bhatia

Vice President

Ground floor flat

Price <  Rs. 50 lacs.

Shopping mall within 5 km.

Patel

Client Relationship

Manager

Distance to office < 10 km.

Recreation Club

 

Khan

Project Manager

Recreation Club

Place for morning

walk

Car parking

Singh

Senior Software

Engineer

Shopping mall within 15 km.

Price < Rs. 30 lacs.

Place for morning

walk

Yadav

Assistant Software Engineer

Price < Rs. 50 lacs.

Distance to office

< 10km.

 

Ungdo

Assistant Software Engineer

Recreation club

 

 

 

They have identified 7 real estate projects with following facilities available (marked with √):

Real Estate Project

M

N

o

p

Q

R

s

Price

Rs. 60-80 lacs.

Rs. 45-50 lacs.

Rs. 20-25

lacs.

Rs. 65-80

lacs.

Rs. 35-45 lacs.

Rs. 25-40 lacs

Rs. 20-30 lacs.

Distance to office

<5 km.

<10 km.

>20 km.

> 15 km.

<2km.

<10 km.

<5 km.

Place for morning walk

 

Recreation Club

 

 

 

 

Distance to shopping mall

Inside

>25 km.

<2km.

Inside

< 5 km.

>10 km.

>20 km.

Car parking facility

 

 

 

Availability of ground floor flat

 

 

 

 

 

 

A person is ‘satisfied1 if a project meets all three preferences.

Identify the project(s), where AT LEAST 3 of the 6 persons will be ‘satisfied’.
A. MOnly
B. Sonly
C. Q and R only
D. M, Q and S only
E. M, Q and R only


Solution:


On company the data of the projects with the preferences, we can infer that the project 5 is the one where at least 3 persons will be satisfied
Answer b.

Question 47
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 45-47 that follow:
Six people working at the Bengaluru office of Simsys are planning to buy flats at a real estate project at Whitefield. Their preferences are listed below:

Person

Designation

First Preference

Second Preference

Third Preference

Bhatia

Vice President

Ground floor flat

Price <  Rs. 50 lacs.

Shopping mall within 5 km.

Patel

Client Relationship

Manager

Distance to office < 10 km.

Recreation Club

 

Khan

Project Manager

Recreation Club

Place for morning

walk

Car parking

Singh

Senior Software

Engineer

Shopping mall within 15 km.

Price < Rs. 30 lacs.

Place for morning

walk

Yadav

Assistant Software Engineer

Price < Rs. 50 lacs.

Distance to office

< 10km.

 

Ungdo

Assistant Software Engineer

Recreation club

 

 

 

They have identified 7 real estate projects with following facilities available (marked with √):

Real Estate Project

M

N

o

p

Q

R

s

Price

Rs. 60-80 lacs.

Rs. 45-50 lacs.

Rs. 20-25

lacs.

Rs. 65-80

lacs.

Rs. 35-45 lacs.

Rs. 25-40 lacs

Rs. 20-30 lacs.

Distance to office

<5 km.

<10 km.

>20 km.

> 15 km.

<2km.

<10 km.

<5 km.

Place for morning walk

 

Recreation Club

 

 

 

 

Distance to shopping mall

Inside

>25 km.

<2km.

Inside

< 5 km.

>10 km.

>20 km.

Car parking facility

 

 

 

Availability of ground floor flat

 

 

 

 

 

 

A person is ‘satisfied1 if a project meets all three preferences.

The marketing managers of all the six projects have agreed to add a recreation club and a car parking facility to the projects. In this changed scenario identify projects where AT MOST 2 of the 6 persons will NOT be ‘satisfied’.”

A. N, Q and R only
B. Ponly
C. M and Ponly
D. N and Ponly
E. M, N and P only


Solution:


As described in the questions above, the answer is option A.

Question 48
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 48-49 that follow:

Geetha Gawde can cultivate up to 6 crops a year. Crop A and B are ready for harvest in 2 months; crop C and D in 3 months, and crop E and F in 4 months. Crop A can be cultivated from January to June; crop B can be cultivated from April to September; crop C can be cultivated from May to December; crops D as well as E can be cultivated from August to December, and crop F from November to May. If Geetha plans a change of crop the soil should be left fallow for one month; however, if the same crop is sown no -fallow time is needed. Sowing takes place only at the beginning of a month. Geetha can only harvest a maximum of 1000 units of any crop at any point in time. The production cost per unit (incurred at the time of sowing) and price per unit of crop are as follows:

Crop

Production cost per unit crop (in USD)

Price per unit crop (in USD)

A

20

60

B

5

55

C

25

70

D

15

75

E

5

65

F

35

75

 

For Geetha soil preparation does not incur any cost. If a crop is abandoned before the scheduled harvesting, she gets no money. Geetha is preparing a cropping schedule to maximize her annual profits (i.e. price – cost). She plans to replicate the schedule in the coming years.

Which of the following would DEFINITELY be a part of the ideal schedule?

A. Cultivate crop B in August or September.
B. Cultivate crop B from April to September.
C. Do not cultivate any crop in August but cultivate crop D in September.
D. Cultivate crop D or crop E in August or September.
E. Do not cultivate any crop in August; but cultivate crop D or crop E in September.


Solution:

Crop

Prod cost & per unit crop

Price per unit

Profit/month

A

20

60

15

B

5

55

25

C

25

70

15

D

15

75

20

E

5

65

15

F

35

75

10

 

Since b is the most profitable, B must be cultivated from April to September.
Hence option b.

Question 49
Question:

Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions 48-49 that follow:

Geetha Gawde can cultivate up to 6 crops a year. Crop A and B are ready for harvest in 2 months; crop C and D in 3 months, and crop E and F in 4 months. Crop A can be cultivated from January to June; crop B can be cultivated from April to September; crop C can be cultivated from May to December; crops D as well as E can be cultivated from August to December, and crop F from November to May. If Geetha plans a change of crop the soil should be left fallow for one month; however, if the same crop is sown no -fallow time is needed. Sowing takes place only at the beginning of a month. Geetha can only harvest a maximum of 1000 units of any crop at any point in time. The production cost per unit (incurred at the time of sowing) and price per unit of crop are as follows:

Crop

Production cost per unit crop (in USD)

Price per unit crop (in USD)

A

20

60

B

5

55

C

25

70

D

15

75

E

5

65

F

35

75

 

For Geetha soil preparation does not incur any cost. If a crop is abandoned before the scheduled harvesting, she gets no money. Geetha is preparing a cropping schedule to maximize her annual profits (i.e. price – cost). She plans to replicate the schedule in the coming years.

Which of the following schedules would maximize her annual profit while minimising the costs, if Geetha decides NOT to repeat a crop in a calendar year?

A. Crops A, B and E
B. Crops B, D and F
C. Crops B, D, E and F
D. Crops C, D and F
E. Crops A, B, D or E


Solution:


From the data in the above solution, the answer is option e.


QA & DI
Question 50
Question:




Solution:


Question 51
Question:

In an amusement park along with the entry pass a visitor gets two of the three available rides (A, B and C) free. On a particular day 77 opted for ride A, 55 opted for B and 50 opted for C; 25 visitors opted, for both A and C, 22 opted for both A and B, while no visitor opted for both B and C. 40 visitors did not opt for ride A or B, or both. How many visited with the entry pass on that day?

A. 102
B. 115
C. 130
D. 135
E. 150


Solution:



Question 52
Question:




Solution:



Question 53
Question:

Akhtar plans to cover a rectangular floor of dimensions 9.5 meters and 11.5 meters using tiles. Two types of square shaped tiles are available in the market. A tile with side 1 meter costs Rs. 100 and a tile with side 0.5 meters costs ?30. The tiles can be cut if required. What will be the minimum cost of covering the entire floor with tiles?

A. 10930
B. 10900
C. 11000
D. 10950
E. 10430


Solution:



Question 54
Question:

Anita, Biplove, Cheryl, Danish, Emily and Feroze compared their marks among themselves. Anita scored the highest marks, Biplove scored more than Danish. Cheryl scored more ihan at least two others and Emily had not scored the lowest.
Statement I: Exactly two members scored less than Cheryl.
Statement II: Emily and Feroze scored the same marks.

Which of the following statements would be sufficient to identify the one with the lowest
marks?

A. Statement I only.
B. Statement II only.
C. Both Statement 1 and Statement II are required together.
D. Neither Statement I nor Statement II is sufficient.
E. Either Statement I or Statement II is sufficient.


Solution:


From the given data, we can derive the following information
D/F < __ < __<__<__<_A_
From Statement I D/F < __ < _C_<__<__<__ _A_
From Statement II
Since Emily and Feroze scored the same & marks, and Emily had not scored the lowest Danish is the one with the lowest score Hence, option B.

Toggle This
Question:

Rani bought more apples than oranges. She sells apples at ?23 apiece and makes 15% profit. She sells oranges at ?10 apiece and makes 25% profit. If she gets ?653 after selling all the apples and oranges, find her profit percentage.

A. 16.8%
B. 17.4%
C. 17.9%
D. 18.5%
E. 19.1%


Solution:



Question 56
Question:

Consider the set of numbers {1, 3, 3^2, 3^3,…..,3^100}. The ratio of the last number and the sum
of the remaining numbers is.closest to :

A. A
B. 2
C. 3
D. 50
E. 99


Solution:



Question 57
Question:

f is a function for which f(l)=l arid f(x) – 2x +- l\x-l) for each natural number x>2. Find

A. 869
B. 929
C. 951
D. 991
E. None of the above


Solution:



Question 58
Question:

Two numbers in the base system B are 2061B and 601B. The sum of these two numbers in decimal system is 432. Find the value of 1010B in decimal system.

A. 110
B. 120
C. 130
D. 140
E. 150


Solution:



Question 59
Question:

A water tank has M inlet pipes and N outlet pipes. An inlet pipe ean till the tank in 8 hours while an outlet pipe can empty the full tank in 12 hours. If all pipes are left open simultaneously, it takesjj hours to fill the empty tank. What is the relationship between M and N?

A. M:N = 1:1
B. M:N = 2:1
C. M:N = 2:3
D. M:N = 3:2
E. None of the above


Solution:


(b); Let the volume of the tank be 24 units. Hence, the rate of inlet pipe will be 3 units/hr and outlet pipes will be 2 units/hr combined rate is 4 units/hr.
Hence 3m – 2n = 4
Going through options, answer (B).

Question 60
Question:

. Company ABC starts an educational program in collaboration with Institute XYZ. As per the agreement, ABC and XYZ will share profit in 60:40 ratio The initial investment of Rs. 100,000 on infrastructure is borne entirely by ABC whereas the running cost of Rs. 400 per student is borne by XYZ. If each student pay Rs. 2000 for the program find the minimum number of students required to make the program profitable, assuming ABC wants to recover its investment in the very first year and the program has no seat limits.

A. 63
B. 84
C. 105
D. 157
E. 167


Solution:

Question 61
Question:


Solution:

Question 62
Question:

62. Each day on Planet M is 10 hours, each hour 60 minutes and each minute 40 seconds. The inhabitants of Planet M use 10 hour analog clock with an hour hand, a minute hand and a second hand. If one such clock shows 3 hours 42 minutes and 20 seconds in a mirror what will be the time in Planet M exactly after 5 minutes?

A. 6 hours 18 minutes 20 seconds
B. 6 hours 22 minutes 20 seconds
C. 6 hours 23 minutes 20 seconds
D. 7 hours 17 minutes 20 seconds
E. 7 hours 23 minutes 20 seconds


Solution:


The actual time will be 6 hours 17 min 20 sec. hence the time after 5 min will be 6 hours 22 min 20 sec hence, answer B.

Question 63
Question:

63. a, b, c are integers, |a|≠ |b| ≠ |c| and -10 ≤ a, b, c ≤ 10. What will be the maximum possible value of [abc - (a+b+c)]?

A. 524
B. 693
C. 731
D. 970
E. None of the above


Solution:


Maximum value = 10 x 10 x 10 – (10 + 10 + 10) = 970
Hence answer D

Question 64
Question:

64. A square piece of paper is folded three times along its diagonal to get an isosceles triangle whose equal sides are 10 cm. What is the area of the unfolded original piece of paper?

A. 400 sq. cm.
B. 800 sq. cm.
C. 800√2 sq. cm.
D. 1600 sq. cm.
E. Insufficient data to answer


Solution:



Question 65
Question:

65. The difference between the area of the circumscribed circle and the area of the inscribed circle of an equilateral triangle is 2156 sq. cm. What is the area of the equilateral triangle?

A. 686√3
B. 1000
C. 961√2
D. 650√3
E. None of the above


Solution:



Question 66
Question:


Solution:

Question 67
Question:

67. For two positive integers a and b, if (a+ b)(a+b) is divisible by 500, then the least possible value of a x b is:

A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 12
E. None of the above


Solution:


(a + b)a x b is a multiple of 500.
Going through options, option A = P
8 = 1 x 8 or 2 x 4
 a + b = 9 or 6
99 and 66 and not multiples of 500 from option B, a + b = 10 or 6
1010 is a multiple of 500.
Hence, answer B.

Question 68
Question:

68. Pradeep could either walk or drive to office. The time taken to walk to the office is 8 times the driving time. One day, his wife took the car making him walk to office. After walking 1 km, he reached a temple when his wife called to say that he can now take the car. Pradeep figured that continuing to walk to the office will take as long as walking back home and then driving to the office. Calculate the distance between the temple and the office.

A. 1
B. 7/3
C. 9/7
D. 16/7
E. 16/9


Solution:



Question 69
Question:


Solution:

Question 70
Question:

70. In the figure below, two circular curves create 60° and 90° angles with their respective centres. If the length of the bottom curve Y is 10π, find the length of the other curve.

A. 15 pie /√2
B. 20 pie√2/3
C. 60 pie/√2
D. 20 pie/3
E. 15 pie


Solution:



Question 71
Question:

71. ABCD is a quadrilateral such that AD = 9 cm, BC = 13 cm and DAB – BCD = 90°. P
and Q are two points on AB and CD respectively, such that DQ: BP = 1:2 and DQ is an integer. How many values can DQ take, for which the maximum possible area of the quadrilateral PBQD is 150 sq. cm?

A. 14
B. 12
C. 10
D. 9
E. 8


Solution:

Question 72
Question:

Study the data given in the table below and answer tire questions 72-74 that follow:

All figures are in percentage
Based on a survey of ‘shop types’ Kamath categorized Indian states into four geographical regions as shown in the table above. His boss felt that the categorization was inadequate since important labels were missing. Kamath argued that no further labels are required to interpret the data.

72. A consultant observing the data made the following two inferences:

Inference I: The number of Grocers pcr-thousand-population is the highest in North India.
Inference II: The number of Cosmetic per-thousand-population is the highest in South India.

Which of following options is DEFINITELY correct?

A. Inference I alone is correct.
B. Inference II alone is correct.
C. Either of the inferences is correct.
D. Neither of the inferences is correct.
E. Inference I will be correct only if inference II is correct.


Solution:

Question 73
Question:

Study the data given in the table below and answer tire questions 72-74 that follow:

All figures are in percentage
Based on a survey of ‘shop types’ Kamath categorized Indian states into four geographical regions as shown in the table above. His boss felt that the categorization was inadequate since important labels were missing. Kamath argued that no further labels are required to interpret the data.

73. The average size of Food Shops in East India was twice that of Food Shops in West India. Which of the following CANNOT be inferred from the above data?
A. As far as ‘Food Shops’ are concerned, customers in East India prefer spatial surroundings compared to customers in the West India.
B. As far as ‘Food Shops’ are concerned, Rentals are very high in West India compared to East India.
C. The ratio of customers buying from ‘Food Shops’ in East India to customers buying from ‘Food Shops’ in West India is 15.8: 11.8.
D. There are 740 ‘Food Shops’ in West India.
E. There are 240 ‘Food Shops’ in South India.


Solution:

Question 74
Question:

Study the data given in the table below and answer tire questions 72-74 that follow:

All figures are in percentage
Based on a survey of ‘shop types’ Kamath categorized Indian states into four geographical regions as shown in the table above. His boss felt that the categorization was inadequate since important labels were missing. Kamath argued that no further labels are required to interpret the data.

74. Bala collected the same data five years after Kamath, using the same categorization. His data is presented below:

 

North

East

West

South

All India

Grocers

30

32

32.2

40

32.4

Pan Bidi

7.1

25

13.1

19.1

14.6

Food Shops

4

7.9

14.9

12

11.6

General stores

12.4

9.1

12

7

10.1

Electrical Hardware

15

5.8

7.6

5.7

6.7

Chemists

7

5.8

5

5.7

5.7

Cosmetic Stores

3.9

3.6

3.2

3.9

3.7

Others

20.6

10.8

12

6.6

15.2

Total

100

100

100

100

100

 

Which of the following statements can DEFINITELY be concluded?

A. In the last four years the number of Electrical hardware shop types has increased in North India.
B. In the last four years the number of Grocers shop types has increased in South India.
C. For the last four years in All India the number of Chemists shop types has remained constant.
D. In the four years in East India the number of ‘others’ shop type has decreased.
E. As per the new survey conducted Pan Bidi shops in East India are next only to Grocers.


Solution: